Dental Management Of The Medically Compromised Patient 8Th Ed Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 8th Edition Chapter 03: Hypertension MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In prehypertension, diastolic pressure ranges from ________ mm Hg. A. 80 to 89 B. 90 to 99 C. 100 to 109 D. 110 to 119 PTS: 1 REF: p. 38 2. Which of the following types of health professionals can make the diagnosis of hypertension and decide on its treatment? A. physician B. dentist C. dental hygienist D. a, b, and c E. a and c only PTS: 1 REF: p. 44 3. Which of the following is the most common cardiac condition in America? A. congestive heart failure B. cardiac arrhythmia C. hypertension D. angina PTS: 1 REF: p. 37 4. It is estimated that about __% of all blood pressure–related deaths from coronary heart disease occur in persons with blood pressure in the prehypertensive range. A. less than 1 B. 5 C. 15 D. 25 5. Which of the following is most often the first drug category of choice if lifestyle modification is ineffective at lowering blood pressure? A. beta blockers (BBs) B. thiazide diuretics C. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) D. angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) PTS: 1 REF: p. 41 6. Deferral of elective dental care and referral to a physician for evaluation and treatment within 1 week are indicated for patients found to have asymptomatic blood pressure of greater than or equal to ________ mm Hg. A. 160/90 B. 160/110 C. 180/90 D. 180/110 PTS: 1 REF: p. 46 7. Which of the following is recommended for stress management for dental patients with hypertension? A. afternoon appointments B. premedication with a barbiturate C. nitrous oxide plus oxygen for inhalation sedation D. keeping the dental chair in an upright position during treatment PTS: 1 REF: p. 46 8. Use of how many cartridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine at one time is considered to have little clinical risk for dental treatment of a patient with hypertension? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 PTS: 1 REF: p. 48 9. Which of the following is an adverse drug interaction that may occur if a dental anesthetic containing a vasoconstrictor is administered to a patient being treated for hypertension with a non-selective β-adrenergic blocking agent? A. hypotension B. hypertension C. respiratory alkalosis D. respiratory acidosis PTS: 1 REF: p. 48 Little: Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 8th Edition Chapter 05: Cardiac Arrhythmias Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is the most common type of persistent arrhythmia? A. sinus arrhythmia B. premature atrial complexes C. atrial fibrillation D. ventricular flutter and fibrillation 2. Which of the following sequences correctly depicts the normal pattern of sequential depolarization of the structures of the heart? (1) right and left bundle branches, (2) sinoatrial (SA) node, (3) subendocardial Purkinje network, (4) bundle of His, (5) atrioventricular (AV) node A. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 D. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 3. Tachycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate greater then ___ beats per minute, with otherwise normal findings on the ECG. A. 100 B. 125 C. 150 D. 175 PTS: 1 REF: p. 69 4. Which of the following is a disorder of repolarization? A. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) B. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome C. long QT syndrome D. torsades de pointes 5. Which of the following is an advantage of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators (ICDs) in contrast to pacemakers? A. ICDs generally are smaller than pacemakers. B. ICDs are capable of providing antitachycardia pacing (ATP) and ventricular bradycardia pacing, while pacemakers are not capable of providing such pacing. C. ICDs have batteries that last much longer than pacemakers. D. ICDs do not require antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental treatment whereas pacemakers do. PTS: 1 REF: pp. 74 6. Which of the following dental devices has produced electromagnetic interference (EMI) with pacemakers and ICDs in studies performed in vitro? A. battery-operated curing lights B. electrical pulp testers and apex locators C. handpieces D. electric toothbrushes PTS: 1 REF: pp. 74 7. Which of the following is classified as a significant arrhythmia according to the ACC/AHA guidelines? A. pathologic Q waves B. left bundle branch block C. high-grade AV block D. ST-T wave abnormalities PTS: 1 REF: p. 76 8. If a vasoconstrictor in local anesthetic is deemed necessary, patients in the low to intermediate risk category and those taking nonselective beta blockers can safely be given up to ____ cartridge(s) containing 1:100,000 epinephrine. A. one B. two C. three D. zero—epinephrine is an absolute contraindication ANS: B These patients can safely be given up to 0.036 mg epinephrine, which is the amount in two cartridges containing 1:100,000 epinephrine. Greater quantities of vasoconstrictor may well be tolerated, but increasing quantities are associated with increased risk for adverse cardiovascular effects. PTS: 1 REF: p. 77 Little: Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 8th Edition Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Disease Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is the most common location for peptic ulcers in Western populations? A. stomach B. duodenum C. jejunum D. ileum PTS: 1 REF: p. 169 2. Which of the following is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease? A. cytomegalovirus infection B. acid hypersecretion C. H. pylori infection D. use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication PTS: 1 REF: p. 69-170 3. Which of the following is characteristic of gastric peptic ulcers rather than duodenal peptic ulcers? A. epigastric pain that is long-standing B. diffuse rather than localized epigastric pain C. symptoms rapidly relieved in most cases by ingestion of food, milk, or antacids D. pain that most commonly manifests 90 minutes to 3 hours after eating PTS: 1 REF: p. 171-172 4. Which of the following is/are components of currently recommended therapy when a peptic ulcer is confirmed and H. pylori is present? A. inhibitors of gastric acid secretion B. dissection of the vagus nerves from the gastric fundus C. antimicrobial agents D. a, b, and c E. a and c PTS: 1 REF: p. 172 5. Which of the following is true of Crohn’s disease? A. Crohn’s disease is limited to the large intestine and the rectum. B. Crohn’s disease affects men and women equally. C. Crohn’s disease occurs more often in smokers. D. Most patients who have Crohn’s disease require at least one operation for their condition. PTS: 1 REF: pp. 177 6. Patients with IBD who have fewer than __ bowel movements per day with little or no blood, no fever, few symptoms, and a sedimentation rate below 20 mm/hour are considered to have mild disease and can receive dental care in the dentist’s office. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 PTS: 1 REF: p. 179 7. Which of the following is the most common oral complication associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A. petechiae B. vascular pools C. sialadenitis D. aphthous ulcer-like lesions PTS: 1 REF: pp. 179 8. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent in 90% to 99% of cases of pseudomembranous colitis? A. H. pylori B. C. difficile C. S. aureus D. C. albicans PTS: 1 REF: p. 180 9. Which of the following is the most common presenting manifestation of pseudomembranous colitis? A. “red man” syndrome B. diarrhea C. peptic ulcer D. acute hypertension PTS: 1 REF: p. 181