1. After
noting a pulse deficit when assessing a 74-year-old patient who has just
arrived in the emergency department, the nurse will anticipate that the patient
may require
a. emergent
cardioversion.
b. a cardiac
catheterization.
c. hourly
blood pressure (BP) checks.
d. electrocardiographic
(ECG) monitoring.
ANS: D
Pulse deficit is a difference between simultaneously
obtained apical and radial pulses. It indicates that there may be a cardiac
dysrhythmia that would best be detected with ECG monitoring. Frequent BP
monitoring, cardiac catheterization, and emergent cardioversion are used for
diagnosis and/or treatment of cardiovascular disorders but would not be as
helpful in determining the immediate reason for the pulse deficit.
2. When
reviewing the 12-lead electrocardiograph (ECG) for a healthy 79-year-old
patient who is having an annual physical examination, what will be of most
concern to the nurse?
a. The PR
interval is 0.21 seconds.
b. The QRS
duration is 0.13 seconds.
c. There is
a right bundle-branch block.
d. The heart
rate (HR) is 42 beats/minute.
ANS: D
The resting HR does not change with aging, so the decrease
in HR requires further investigation. Bundle-branch block and slight increases
in PR interval or QRS duration are common in older individuals because of
increases in conduction time through the AV node, bundle of His, and bundle
branches.
3. During a
physical examination of a 74-year-old patient, the nurse palpates the point of
maximal impulse (PMI) in the sixth intercostal space lateral to the left midclavicular
line. The most appropriate action for the nurse to take next will be to
a. ask the
patient about risk factors for atherosclerosis.
b. document
that the PMI is in the normal anatomic location.
c. auscultate
both the carotid arteries for the presence of a bruit.
d. assess
the patient for symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy.
ANS: D
The PMI should be felt at the intersection of the fifth
intercostal space and the left midclavicular line. A PMI located outside these
landmarks indicates possible cardiac enlargement, such as with left ventricular
hypertrophy. Cardiac enlargement is not necessarily associated with
atherosclerosis or carotid artery disease.
4. To
auscultate for S3 or S4 gallops in the mitral area, the nurse listens with the
a. bell of
the stethoscope with the patient in the left lateral position.
b. diaphragm
of the stethoscope with the patient in a supine position.
c. bell of
the stethoscope with the patient sitting and leaning forward.
d. diaphragm
of the stethoscope with the patient lying flat on the left side.
ANS: A
Gallop rhythms generate low-pitched sounds and are most
easily heard with the bell of the stethoscope. Sounds associated with the
mitral valve are accentuated by turning the patient to the left side, which brings
the heart closer to the chest wall. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is best to
use for the higher-pitched sounds such as S1 and S2.
5. To
determine the effects of therapy for a patient who is being treated for heart
failure, which laboratory result will the nurse plan to review?
a. Troponin
b. Homocysteine
(Hcy)
c. Low-density
lipoprotein (LDL)
d. B-type
natriuretic peptide (BNP)
ANS: D
Increased levels of BNP are a marker for heart failure. The
other laboratory results would be used to assess for myocardial infarction
(troponin) or risk for coronary artery disease (Hcy and LDL).
6. While
doing the admission assessment for a thin 76-year-old patient, the nurse
observes pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric area. Which action should
the nurse take?
a. Teach the
patient about aneurysms.
b. Notify
the hospital rapid response team.
c. Instruct
the patient to remain on bed rest.
d. Document
the finding in the patient chart.
ANS: D
Visible pulsation of the abdominal aorta is commonly
observed in the epigastric area for thin individuals. The nurse should simply
document the finding in the admission assessment. Unless there are other
abnormal findings (such as a bruit, pain, or hyper/hypotension) associated with
the pulsation, the other actions are not necessary.
7. A patient
is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization with coronary angiography.
Before the test, the nurse informs the patient that
a. it will
be important to lie completely still during the procedure.
b. a flushed
feeling may be noted when the contrast dye is injected.
c. monitored
anesthesia care will be provided during the procedure.
d. arterial
pressure monitoring will be required for 24 hours after the test.
ANS: B
A sensation of warmth or flushing is common when the
contrast material is injected, which can be anxiety-producing unless it has
been discussed with the patient. The patient may receive a sedative drug before
the procedure, but monitored anesthesia care is not used. Arterial pressure
monitoring is not routinely used after the procedure to monitor blood pressure.
The patient is not immobile during cardiac catheterization and may be asked to
cough or take deep breaths.
8. While
assessing a patient who was admitted with heart failure, the nurse notes that
the patient has jugular venous distention (JVD) when lying flat in bed. Which
action should the nurse take next?
a. Document
this finding in the patients record.
b. Obtain
vital signs, including oxygen saturation.
c. Have the
patient perform the Valsalva maneuver.
d. Observe
for JVD with the patient upright at 45 degrees.
ANS: D
When the patient is lying flat, the jugular
veins are at the level of the right atrium, so JVD is a common (but not a
clinically significant) finding. Obtaining vital signs and oxygen saturation is
not warranted at this point. JVD is an expected finding when a patient performs
the Valsalva maneuver because right atrial pressure increases. JVD that
persists when the patient is sitting at a 30- to 45-degree angle or
Category | ATI |
Release date | 2021-09-14 |
Pages | 12 |
Language | English |
Comments | 0 |
Sales | 0 |
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