HESI Comprehensive
1. A 2-day postpartum mother who is
breastfeeding asks, "Why do I feel
this tingling in my breasts after the
baby sucks for a few minutes?"
Which information should the nurse
provide?
A. This feeling occurs during feeding
with a breast infection.
B. This sensation occurs as breast
milk moves to the nipple.
C. The baby does not have good
latch-on.
D. The infant is not positioned
correctly.
B. This sensation occurs as breast milk
moves to the nipple.
Rationale:
When the mother's milk comes in,
usually 2 to 3 days after delivery,
women often report they feel a tingling
sensation in their nipples (B) when letdown occurs. (A, C, and D) provide
inaccurate information.
2. A 40-year-old office worker who is
at 36 weeks' gestation presents to the
occupational health clinic
complaining of a pounding
headache, blurry vision, and swollen
ankles. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
A. Check the client's blood
pressure.
B. Teach her to elevate her feet
when sitting.
C. Obtain a 24-hour diet history to
evaluate for the intake of salty
foods.
D. Assess the fetal heart rate.
A. Check the client's blood pressure.
Rationale:
The blood pressure (A) should be
assessed first. Preeclampsia is a
multisystem disorder, and women older
than 35 years and have chronic
hypertension are at increased risk.
Classic signs include headache, visual
changes, edema, recent rapid weight
gain, and elevated blood pressure. (B,
C, and D) can be done if the blood
pressure is normal.
3. A 50-year-old man arrives at the
clinic with complaints of pain on
ejaculation. Which action should the
nurse implement?
A. Teach the client testicular selfexamination (TSE).
B. Assess for the presence of blood
C. Ask about scrotal pain or blood in
the semen.
Rationale:
Orchitis is an acute testicular
inflammation resulting from recurrent
urinary tract infection, recurrent
sexually transmitted disease (STD), or
in the urine.
C. Ask about scrotal pain or blood
in the semen.
D. Inquire about a history of kidney
stones.
an indwelling urethral urinary catheter
causing pain on ejaculation, scrotal
pain, blood in the semen, and penile
discharge, so the nurse should
determine the presence of other
symptoms (C). Although all men
should practice TSE, the client's
symptoms are suggestive of an
inflammatory syndrome rather than
testicular cancer (A). Although
hematuria (B) is associated with renal
disease or calculi (D), the client's pain
is associated with ejaculate, not urine.
4. A 77-year-old female client states
that she has never been so large
around the waist and that she has
frequent periods of constipation.
Colon disease has been ruled out
with a flexible sigmoidoscopy. Which
information should the nurse provide
to this client?
A. As women age, they often become
rounder in the middle because they
do not exercise properly.
B. Further assessment is indicated
because loss of abdominal muscle
tone and constipation do not occur
with aging.
C. With age, more fatty tissue
develops in the abdomen and
decreased intestinal movement can
cause constipation.
D. Because there is no evidence of a
diseased colon, there is no need to
worry about abdominal size.
C. With age, more fatty tissue
develops in the abdomen and
decreased intestinal movement can
cause constipation.
Rationale:
With aging, the abdominal muscles
weaken as fatty tissue is deposited
around the trunk and waist. Slowing
peristalsis also affects the emptying of
the colon, resulting in constipation (C).
(A) is not the primary reason for the
changes in body structure. (B) is not
indicated because loss of muscle tone
and constipation are age-related
changes. (D) dismisses the client's
concerns and does not help her
understand the changes that she is
experiencing.
5. According to Erikson, which client
should the nurse identify as having
difficulty completing the
developmental stage of older adults?
D. A 75-year-old woman who wishes
her friends were still alive so she could
change some of the choices she made
over the years
A. A 60-year-old man who tells the
nurse that he is feeling fine and
really does not need any help from
anyone
B. A 78-year-old widower who has
come to the mental health clinic for
counseling after the recent death of
his wife
C. An 81-year-old woman who states
that she enjoys having her
grandchildren visit but is usually
glad when they go home
D. A 75-year-old woman who wishes
her friends were still alive so she
could change some of the choices she
made over the years
Rationale:
The older woman who wishes she
could change the choices she has made
in her lifetime is expressing despair
and is still searching for integrity (D).
The nurse uses Erikson stages of
development over the life span to
assess an older client's adjustment to
aging and plans teaching strategies to
assist the clients attain integrity versus
despair. (A, B, and C) are normal
developmental tasks of older adults.
6. After administration of an 0730 dose
of Humalog 50/50 insulin to a client
with diabetes mellitus, which nursing
action has the highest priority?
A. Ensure that the client receives
breakfast within 30 minutes.
B. Remind the client to have a
midmorning snack at 1000.
C. Discuss the importance of a
midafternoon snack with the client.
D. Explain that the client's capillary
glucose will be checked at 1130.
A. Ensure that the client receives
breakfast within 30 minutes.
Rationale:
Insulin 50/50 contains 50% regular
and 50% NPH insulin. Therefore, the
onset of action is within 30 minutes
and the nurse's priority action is to
ensure that the client receives a
breakfast tray to avoid a hypoglycemic
reaction (A). (B, C, and D) are also
important nursing actions but are of
less immediacy than (A).
7. The antigout medication allopurinol
(Zyloprim) is prescribed for a client newly
diagnosed with gout. Which comment by
the client warrants intervention by the
nurse?
A. "I take aspirin for my pain."
B. "I frequently eat fruit and drink fruit
juices."
C. "I drink a great deal of water, so I have
to get up at night to urinate."
D. "I observe my skin daily to see if I have
A. "I take aspirin for my pain."
Rationale:
The client should be taught to
avoid aspirin (A) because the
ingestion of aspirin or diuretics
can precipitate an attack of
gout. (B, C, and D) are all
appropriate for the treatment of
gout. The client's urinary pH
can be increased by the intake
of alkaline ash foods, such as
an allergic rash to the medication." citrus fruits and juices, which
will help reduce stone
formation (B). Increasing fluids
helps prevent urinary calculi
(stone) formation and should
be encouraged, even if the
client must get up at night to
urinate (C). Allopurinol has a
rare but potentially fatal
hypersensitivity syndrome,
which is characterized by a
rash and fever. The medication
should be discontinued
immediately if this occurs (D).
8. Because of census overload, the charge
nurse of an acute care medical unit must
select a client who can be transferred back
to a residential facility. The client with
which symptomology is the most stable?
A. A stage 3 sacral pressure ulcer, with
colonized methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
B. Pneumonia, with a sputum culture of
gram-negative bacteria
C. Urinary tract infection, with positive
blood cultures
D. Culture of a diabetic foot ulcer shows
gram-positive cocci
A. A stage 3 sacral pressure
ulcer, with colonized
methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA)
Rationale:
The client with colonized
MRSA (A) is the most stable
client, because colonization
does not cause symptomatic
disease. The gram-negative
organisms causing pneumonia
are typically resistant to drug
therapy (B), which makes
recovery very difficult. Positive
blood cultures (C) indicate a
systemic infection. Poor
circulation places the diabetic
with an infected ulcer (D) at
high risk for poor healing and
bone infection.
9. The charge nurse of a 16-bed medical unit is
making 0700 to 1900 shift assignments. The
team consists of two RNs, two PNs, and two
UAP. Which assignment is the most
B. Assign the UAPs to take
vital signs and obtain daily
weights.
Rationale:
effective use of the available team
members?
A. Assign the PNs to perform am care and
assist with feeding the clients.
B. Assign the UAPs to take vital signs and
obtain daily weights.
C. Assign the RNs to answer the call lights
and administer all medications.
D. Assign the PNs to assist health care
providers on rounds and perform
glucometer checks.
A UAP can take vital signs and
daily weights on stable clients
(B). UAPs can perform am care
and feed clients, which is a
better use of personnel than
assigning the task to the PN
(A). All team members can
answer call lights and PNs can
administer some of the
medications, so assigning the
RN (C) these tasks is not an
effective use of the available
personnel. The RN is the best
team member to assist on
rounds (D), and the UAP can
perform glucometer checks, so
assigning the PN these tasks is
not an effective use of
available personnel.
10. The charge nurse of a medical
surgical unit is alerted to an
impending disaster requiring
implementation of the
hospital's disaster plan.
Specific facts about the nature
of this disaster are not yet
known. Which instruction
should the charge nurse give
to the other staff members at
this time?
A. Prepare to evacuate the
unit, starting with the
bedridden clients.
B. UAPs should report to the
emergency center to handle
transports.
C. The licensed staff should
begin counting wheelchairs
and IV poles on the unit.
D. Continue with current
assignments until more
instructions are received.
Rationale:
When faced with an impending
disaster, hospital personnel
may be alerted but should
continue with current client
care assignments until further
instructions are received (D).
Evacuation is typically a
response of last resort that
begins with clients who are
most able to ambulate (A). (B)
is premature and is likely to
increase the chaos if incoming
casualties are anticipated. (C)
is poor utilization of personnel.
D. Continue with current
assignments until more
instructions are received.
11. The charge nurse overhears a
staff member asking for a
doughnut from
a client's meal
tray. Which action should the
charge nurse implement?
A. Advise the client that food
from the meal tray should not
be shared with others.
B. Leave the room and discuss
the incident privately with the
staff member.
C. Objectively document the
situation as observed on a
variance report.
D. Call the nurse
-manager to
the client's room immediately.
B. Leave the room and discuss
the incident privately with the
staff member.
Rationale:
Discussing the incident
privately (B) promotes open
communication between the
charge nurse and staff
member. The client is free to
share unwanted food (A) with
family or friends, but the
employee should not ask for
the client's food. (C) is not
necessary, and the charge
nurse can respond to this
situation without implementing
(D).
12. The charge nurse working in
the surgical department is
making shift assignments. The
shift personnel include an RN
with 12 years of nursing
experience, an RN with 2
years of nursing experience,
and an RN with 3 months of
nursing experience. Which
client should the charge nurse
assign to the RN with 3
months of experience?
A. A client who is 2 days
postoperative with
a right
total knee replacement
B.
A client who is scheduled
for a sigmoid colostomy
surgery today
C.
A client who has
a surgical
A. A client who is 2 days
postoperative with
a right total
knee replacement
Rationale:
(A) is the least critical client
and should be assigned to the
RN with the least experience.
A client with a knee
replacement is probably
ambulating and able to
perform self-care, and a
physical therapist is likely to
be assisting with the client's
care. (B) will require a high
level of nursing care when
returned from surgery. (C)
means that there is
a separation
or rupture of the wound, which
requires an experienced nurse
abdominal wound with
dehiscence
D. A client who is 1 day
postoperative following a
right-sided mastectomy
to provide care. (D) requires
extensive teaching and should
be assigned to a more
experienced nurse.
13. A child is having a generalized
tonic-clonic seizure. Which
action should the nurse take?
A. Move objects out of the
child's immediate area.
B. Quickly slip soft restraints
on the child's wrists.
C. Insert a padded tongue
blade between the teeth.
D. Place in the recovery
position before going for help.
A. Move objects out of the
child's immediate area.
Rationale:
The first priority during a
seizure is to provide a safe
environment, so the nurse
should clear the area (A) to
reduce the risk of trauma. The
child should not be restrained
(B) because this may cause
more trauma. Objects should
not be placed in the child's
mouth (C) because it may pose
a choking hazard. Although
(D) should be implemented
after the seizure, the nurse
should not leave the child
during a seizure to get help.
Category | HESI |
Pages | 970 |
Language | English |
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