Adult health hesi exam testbank
1. Nurse Ronn is assessing a client with
possible Cushing’s syndrome. In a client with
Cushing’s syndrome, the nurse would expect
to find:
a. Hypotension.
b. Thick, coarse skin.
c. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and
dorsocervical area.
d. Weight gain in arms and legs.
1. Answer C. Because of changes in fat distribution,
adipose tissue accumulates in the trunk, face
(moonface), and dorsocervical areas (buffalo hump).
Hypertension is caused by fluid retention. Skin
becomes thin and bruises easily because of a loss of
collagen. Muscle wasting causes muscle atrophy and
thin extremities.
2. A male client with primary diabetes
insipidus is ready for discharge on
desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction
should nurse Lina provide?
a. “Administer desmopressin while the
suspension is cold.”
b. “Your condition isn’t chronic, so you won’t
need to wear a medical identification bracelet.”
c. “You may not be able to use desmopressin
nasally if you have nasal discharge or
blockage.”
d. “You won’t need to monitor your fluid
intake and output after you start taking
desmopressin.”
2. Answer C. Desmopressin may not be absorbed if
the intranasal route is compromised. Although
diabetes insipidus is treatable, the client should wear
medical identification and carry medication at all
times to alert medical personnel in an emergency and
ensure proper treatment. The client must continue to
monitor fluid intake and output and receive adequate
fluid replacement.
3. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive
Chvostek’s sign indicate?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypermagnesemia
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypermagnesemia
3. Answer A. Chvostek’s sign is elicited by tapping
the client’s face lightly over the facial nerve, just
below the temple. If the client’s facial muscles
twitch, it indicates hypocalcemia. Hyponatremia is
indicated by weight loss, abdominal cramping,
muscle weakness, headache, and postural
hypotension. Hypokalemia causes paralytic ileus and
muscle weakness. Clients with hypermagnesemia
exhibit a loss of deep tendon reflexes, coma, or
cardiac arrest.
4. In a 29-year-old female client who is
being successfully treated for Cushing’s
syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a
decline in:
a. Serum glucose level.
b. Hair loss.
c. Bone mineralization.
d. Menstrual flow.
a. Serum glucose level.
b. Hair loss.
c. Bone mineralization.
d. Menstrual flow.
4. Answer A. Hyperglycemia, which develops
from glucocorticoid excess, is a manifestation of
Cushing’s syndrome. With successful treatment of
the disorder, serum glucose levels decline. Hirsutism
is common in Cushing’s syndrome; therefore, with
successful treatment, abnormal hair growth also
declines. Osteoporosis occurs in Cushing’s
syndrome; therefore, with successful treatment, bone
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mineralization increases. Amenorrhea develops in
Cushing’s syndrome. With successful treatment, the
client experiences a return of menstrual flow, not a
decline in it.
5. A male client has recently undergone
surgical removal of a pituitary tumor. Dr.
Wong prescribes corticotropin (Acthar), 20
units I.M. q.i.d. as a replacement therapy.
What is the mechanism of action of
corticotropin?
a. It decreases cyclic adenosine
monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects
the metabolic rate of target organs.
b. It interacts with plasma membrane
receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
c. It interacts with plasma membrane
receptors to produce enzymatic actions that
affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate
metabolism.
d. It regulates the threshold for water
resorption in the kidneys.
5. Answer C. Corticotropin interacts with plasma
membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions
that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
It doesn’t decrease cAMP production. The posterior
pituitary hormone, antidiuretic hormone, regulates
the threshold for water resorption in the kidneys.
6. Capillary glucose monitoring is being
performed every 4 hours for a female client
diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin
is administered using a scale of regular insulin
according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the
client has a capillary glucose level of 250
mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular
insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose’s:
a. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3
p.m.
b. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be
at 3 p.m.
c. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be
at 4 p.m.
d. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6
p.m.
6. Answer C. Regular insulin, which is a shortacting insulin, has an onset of 15 to 30 minutes and a
peak of 2 to 4 hours. Because the nurse gave the
insulin at 2 p.m., the expected onset would be from
2:15 p.m. to 2:30 p.m. and the peak from 4 p.m. to 6
p.m.
7. A female client with Cushing’s syndrome
is admitted to the medical-surgical unit.
During the admission assessment, nurse Tyzz
notes that the client is agitated and irritable,
has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and
appears disheveled. These findings are
consistent with which problem?
a. Depression
b. Neuropathy
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hyperthyroidism
7. Answer A. Agitation, irritability, poor memory,
loss of appetite, and neglect of one’s appearance may
signal depression, which is common in clients with
Cushing’s syndrome. Neuropathy affects clients with
diabetes mellitus — not Cushing’s syndrome.
Although hypoglycemia can cause irritability, it also
produces increased appetite, rather than loss of
appetite. Hyperthyroidism typically causes such
signs as goiter, nervousness, heat intolerance, and
weight loss despite increased appetite.
8. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a
thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals
a. Tetany
b. Hemorrhage
8. Answer A. Tetany may result if the parathyroid
glands are excised or damaged during thyroid
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muscle twitching and tingling, along with
numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area.
The nurse should suspect which
complication?
c. Thyroid storm
d. Laryngeal nerve damage
surgery. Hemorrhage is a potential complication
after thyroid surgery but is characterized by
tachycardia, hypotension, frequent swallowing,
feelings of fullness at the incision site, choking, and
bleeding. Thyroid storm is another term for severe
hyperthyroidism — not a complication of
thyroidectomy. Laryngeal nerve damage may occur
postoperatively, but its signs include a hoarse voice
and, possibly, acute airway obstruction.
9. After undergoing a subtotal
thyroidectomy, a female client develops
hypothyroidism. Dr. Smith prescribes
levothyroxine (Levothroid), 25 mcg P.O.
daily. For which condition is levothyroxine
the preferred agent?
a. Primary hypothyroidism
b. Graves’ disease
c. Thyrotoxicosis
d. Euthyroidism
9. Answer A. Levothyroxine is the preferred agent
to treat primary hypothyroidism and cretinism,
although it also may be used to treat secondary
hypothyroidism. It is contraindicated in Graves’
disease and thyrotoxicosis because these conditions
are forms of hyperthyroidism. Euthyroidism, a term
used to describe normal thyroid function, wouldn’t
require any thyroid preparation.
10. Which of these signs suggests that a
male client with the syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
secretion is experiencing complications?
a. Tetanic contractions
b. Neck vein distention
c. Weight loss
d. Polyuria
10. Answer B. SIADH secretion causes antidiuretic
hormone overproduction, which leads to fluid
retention. Severe SIADH can cause such
complications as vascular fluid overload, signaled by
neck vein distention. This syndrome isn’t associated
with tetanic contractions. It may cause weight gain
and fluid retention (secondary to oliguria).
11. A female client with a history of
pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital
in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse
hypertensive crisis caused by
pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to
administer:
a. phentolamine (Regitine).
b. methyldopa (Aldomet).
c. mannitol (Osmitrol).
d. felodipine (Plendil).
11. Answer A. Pheochromocytoma causes
excessive production of epinephrine and
norepinephrine, natural catecholamines that raise the
blood pressure. Phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic
blocking agent given by I.V. bolus or drip,
antagonizes the body’s response to circulating
epinephrine and norepinephrine, reducing blood
pressure quickly and effectively. Although
methyldopa is an antihypertensive agent available in
parenteral form, it isn’t effective in treating
hypertensive emergencies. Mannitol, a diuretic, isn’t
used to treat hypertensive emergencies. Felodipine,
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an antihypertensive agent, is available only in
extended-release tablets and therefore doesn’t reduce
blood pressure quickly enough to correct
hypertensive crisis.
12. A male client with a history of
hypertension is diagnosed with primary
hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates
that the client’s hypertension is caused by
excessive hormone secretion from which of
the following glands?
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Parathyroid
12. Answer A. Excessive secretion of aldosterone
in the adrenal cortex is responsible for the client’s
hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule,
where it promotes reabsorption of sodium and
excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The
pancreas mainly secretes hormones involved in fuel
metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes the
catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine.
The parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone.
13. Nurse Troy is aware that the most
appropriate for a client with Addison’s
disease?
a. Risk for infection
b. Excessive fluid volume
c. Urinary retention
d. Hypothermia
13. Answer A. Addison’s disease decreases the
production of all adrenal hormones, compromising
the body’s normal stress response and increasing the
risk of infection. Other appropriate nursing
diagnoses for a client with Addison’s disease include
Deficient fluid volume and Hyperthermia. Urinary
retention isn’t appropriate because Addison’s disease
causes polyuria.
14. Acarbose (Precose), an alphaglucosidase inhibitor, is prescribed for a
female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
During discharge planning, nurse Pauleen
would be aware of the client’s need for
additional teaching when the client states:
a. “If I have hypoglycemia, I should eat some
sugar, not dextrose.”
b. “The drug makes my pancreas release more
insulin.”
c. “I should never take insulin while I’m
taking this drug.”
d. “It’s best if I take the drug with the first
bite of a meal.”
14. Answer A. Acarbose delays glucose
absorption, so the client should take an oral form of
dextrose rather than a product containing table sugar
when treating hypoglycemia. The alpha-glucosidase
inhibitors work by delaying the carbohydrate
digestion and glucose absorption. It’s safe to be on a
regimen that includes insulin and an alphaglucosidase inhibitor. The client should take the drug
at the start of a meal, not 30 minutes to an hour
before.
15. A female client whose physical findings
suggest a hyperpituitary condition undergoes
an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results
reveal a pituitary tumor, which necessitates a
transphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening
a. “You must lie flat for 24 hours after
surgery.”
b. “You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and
blowing your nose.”
c. “You must restrict your fluid intake.”
15. Answer B. After a transsphenoidal
hypophysectomy, the client must refrain from
coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose for several
days to avoid disturbing the surgical graft used to
close the wound. The head of the bed must be
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Version | 2021 |
Category | HESI |
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