NCLEX RN LATEST TESTBANK pdf

Question: 1

On the third postpartum day, the nurse would expect the lochia to be:

A. Rubra

B. Serosa

C. Alba

D. Scant

Answer: A

Explanation:

(A) This discharge occurs from delivery through the 3rd day. There is dark red blood, placental

debris, and clots.

(B)

(C)

(D) This discharge occurs from days 4-10. The lochia is brownish, serous, and thin. (C) This discharge

occurs from day 10 through the 6thweek. The lochia is yellowish white. (D) This is not a classification of

lochia but relates to the amount of discharge.

Question: 2

A pregnant client is having a nonstress test (NST). It is noted that the fetal heart beat rises 20 bpm,

lasting 20 seconds, every time the fetus moves. The nurse explains that:

A. The test is inconclusive and should be repeated

B. Further testing is needed

C. The test is normal and the fetus is reacting appropriately

D. The fetus is distressed

Answer: C

Explanation:

(A) The test results were normal, so there would be no need to repeat to determine results. (B) There

are no data to indicate further tests are needed, because the result of the NST was normal. (C) An NST is

reported as reactive if there are two to three increases in the fetal heart rate of 15 bpm, lasting at least

15 seconds during a 15-minute period. (D) The NST results were normal, so there was no fetal distress.

Question: 3

Which stage of labor lasts from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta?

A. Second

B. Third

C. Fourth

D. Fifth

Answer: B

Explanation:

(A) This stage is from complete dilatation of the cervix to delivery of the fetus. (B) This is the correct

stage for the definition. (C) This stage lasts for about 2 hours after the delivery of the placenta. (D) There

is no fifth stage of labor.

Question: 4

A client develops complications following a hysterectomy. Blood cultures reveal Pseudomonas

aeruginosa. The nurse expects that the physician would order an appropriate antibiotic to treat P.

aeruginosa such as:

A. Cefoperazone (Cefobid)

B. Clindamycin (Cleocin)

C. Dicloxacillin (Dycill)

D. Erythromycin (Erythrocin)

Answer: A

Explanation:

(A) Cefoperazone is indicated in the treatment of infection withPseudomonas aeruginosa.(B)

Clindamycin is not indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.(C) Dicloxacillin is not

indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.(D) Erythromycin is not indicated in the

treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa. Question: 5

A couple is experiencing difficulties conceiving a baby. The nurse explains basal body temperature (BBT)

by instructing the female client to take her temperature:

A. Orally in the morning and at bedtime

B. Only one time during the day as long as it is always at the same time of day

C. Rectally at bedtime

D. As soon as she awakens, prior to any activity

Answer: D

Explanation:

(A) Monitoring temperature twice a day predicts the biphasic pattern of ovulation. (B) Prediction of

ovulation relies on consistency in taking temperature. (C)Nightly rectal temperatures are more accurate

in predicting ovulation. (D) Activity changes the accuracy of basal body temperature and ability to detect

the luteinizing hormone surge.

Question: 6

A client is having episodes of hyperventilation related to her surgery that is scheduled tomorrow.

Appropriate nursing actions to help control hyperventilating include:

A. Administering diazepam (Valium) 1015 mg po q4h and q1h prn for hyperventilating episode

B. Keeping the temperature in the client’s room at a high level to reduce respiratory stimulation

C. Having the client hold her breath or breathe into a paper bag when hyperventilation episodes

occur

D. Using distraction to help control the client’s hyperventilation episodes

Answer: C

Explanation:

(A) An adult diazepam dosage for treatment of anxiety is 210 mg PO 24 times daily. The order as written

would place a client at risk for overdose. (B) A high room temperature could increase hyperventilating

episodes by stimulating the respiratory system. (C) Breath holding and breathing into a paper bag may

be useful in controlling hyperventilation. Both measures increase CO2 retention. (D) Distraction will not

prevent or control hyperventilation caused by anxiety or fear.

Question: 7

A client delivered a stillborn male at term. An appropriate action of the nurse would be to:

A. State, "You have an angel in heaven."

B. Discourage the parents from seeing the baby.

C. Provide an opportunity for the parents to see and hold the baby for an undetermined amount of

time.

D. Reassure the parents that they can have other children.

Answer: C

Explanation:

(A) This is not a supportive statement. There are also no data to indicate the family’s religious beliefs. (B)

Seeing their baby assists the parents in the grieving process. This gives them the opportunity to say

"good-bye." (C) Parents need time to get to know their baby. (D) This is not a comforting statement

when a baby has died. There

are also no guarantees that the couple will be able to have another child.

Question: 8

A 29-year-old client is admitted for a hysterectomy. She has repeatedly told the nurses that she is

worried about having this surgery, has not slept well lately, and is afraid that her husband will not find

her desirable after the surgery. Shortly into the preoperative teaching, she complains of a tightness in

her chest, a feeling of suffocation, lightheadedness, and tingling in her hands. Her respirations are rapid

and deep. Assessment reveals that the client is:

A. Having a heart attack

B. Wanting attention from the nurses

C. Suffering from complete upper airway obstruction

D. Hyperventilating

Answer: D

Explanation:

(A) Classic symptoms of a heart attack include heaviness or squeezing pain in the chest, pain spreading

to the jaw, neck, and arm. Nausea and vomiting, sweating, and shortness of breath may be present. The

client does not exhibit these symptoms. (B) Clients suffering from anxiety or fear prior to surgical

procedures may develop hyperventilation. This client is not seeking attention. (C) Symptoms of

complete airway obstruction include not being able to speak, and no airflow between the nose and

mouth. Breath sounds are absent. (D) Tightness in the chest; a feeling of suffocation; lightheadedness;

tingling in the hands; and rapid, deep respirations are signs and symptoms of hyperventilation. This is

almost always a manifestation of anxiety.

Question: 9

A 44-year-old client had an emergency cholecystectomy 3 days ago for a ruptured gallbladder. She

complains of severe abdominal pain. Assessment reveals abdominal rigidity and distention, increased

temperature, and tachycardia. Diagnostic testing reveals an elevated WBC count. The nurse suspects

that the client has developed:

A. Gastritis

B. Evisceration

C. Peritonitis

D. Pulmonary embolism

Answer: C

Explanation:

(A) Assessment findings for gastritis would reveal anorexia, nausea and vomiting, epigastric fullness and

tenderness, and discomfort. (B) Evisceration is the extrusion of abdominal viscera as a result of trauma

or sutures failing in a surgical incision. (C) Peritonitis, inflammation of the peritoneum, can occur when

an abdominal organ, such as the gallbladder, perforates and leaks blood and fluid into the abdominal

cavity. This causes infection and irritation. (D) Assessment findings of pulmonary embolism would reveal

severe substernal chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, shortness of breath, anxiety or panic, and

wheezing and coughing often accompanied by blood-tinged sputum.

Question: 10

A 35-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for elective tubal ligation. While the nurse is doing

preoperative teaching, the client says, "The anesthesiologist said she was going to give me balanced

anesthesia. What exactly is that?" The best explanation for the nurse to give the client would be that

balanced anesthesia:

A. Is a type of regional anesthesia

B. Uses equal amounts of inhalation agents and liquid agents

C. Does not depress the central nervous system

D. Is a combination of several anesthetic agents or drugs producing a smooth induction and

minimal complications

Answer: D

Explanation:

(A) Regional anesthesia does not produce loss of consciousness and is indicated for excision of moles,

cysts, and endoscopic surgeries. (B) Varying amounts of anesthetic agents are used when employing

balanced anesthesia. Amounts depend on age, weight, condition of the client, and surgical procedure.

(C) General anesthesia is a drug- induced depression of the central nervous system that produces loss of

consciousness and decreased muscle activity. (D) Balanced anesthesia is a combination of a number of

anesthetic agents that produce a smooth induction, appropriate depth of anesthesia, and appropriate

muscle relaxation with minimal complications. Question: 11

Following a gastric resection, a 70-year-old client is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit. He was

extubated prior to leaving the suite. On arrival at the postanesthesia care unit, the nurse should:

A. Check airway, feeling for amount of air exchange noting rate, depth, and quality of respirations

B. Obtain pulse and blood pressure readings noting rate and quality of pulse

C. Reassure the client that his surgery is over and that he is in the recovery room

D. Review physician’s orders, administering medications as ordered

Answer: A

Explanation:

(A) Adequate air exchange and tissue oxygenation depend on competent respiratory function. Checking

the airway is the nurse’s priority action. (B) Obtaining the vital signs is an important action, but it is

secondary to airway management. (C) Reorienting a client to time, place, and person after surgery is

important, but it is secondary to airway and vital signs. (D) Airway management takes precedence over

physician’s orders unless they specifically relate to airway management.

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